In common English, doesn’t that mean that absolute risk reduction is about not getting sick at all if vaccinated, and relative risk reduction means that even if one gets the virus their symptoms will be milder? Like, it’ll reduce the possibility of hospitalization and death, down to a simple manageable illness at home, even in the higher risk groups? That’s how I understand it.It's explained within the article:
The percentage of events in the vaccine group is the experimental event rate (EER) or the risk of infection in the vaccine group (1/100 = 1%), and the percentage of events in the placebo group is the control event rate (CER) or the risk of infection in the placebo group (2/100 = 2%). Absolute risk reduction (ARR) is the disease risk difference between the placebo and vaccine groups, i.e., the CER minus the EER (2% − 1% = 1%). The ARR is also known as the vaccine disease preventable incidence (VDPI) [17]. Relative risk reduction (RRR) or vaccine efficacy (VE) is the reduced risk from vaccination, the ARR or VDPI, relative to or divided by the risk in unvaccinated individuals, the CER (1%/2% = 50
Despite the info going around by a doctor (that Rita is spreading) saying that the vaccines will create worse infections due to mutated strains...scientific consensus agrees, evidence is showing, that the vaccines will reduce the risk of serious illness even on the new strains. (And mutated strains would occur without the vaccine even with an attempt at herd immunity through natural infection - because mutating is what viruses tend to do for their own survival and thriving - they’re kind of opportunistic that way. They run through everybody like a locomotive, and when they’re blocked by immune systems on the second go round, they often mutate to survive. Isn’t that right? Maybe Rita wants to save the virus, not the people?) Kind of like how the flu shot still offers some protection even if they don’t get the perfect formulation in time to include new strains? Am I understanding correctly?
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