The Gospel of Mark

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Thoughts on The Parable of the Seed

If a farmer sows good seed into their fields, they don't have to worry about the crop. They know that it rests with God to give the increase. It's God's promise that seedtime and harvest won't cease.

And so it is in spiritual matters. When we've shared the word, we've done our part. Worrying about results is useless. It rests with God to bless the gospel according to God's promise that God's word won't return to God void.

Too many missionaries want to turn around and go into the field with the reaper after they've just planted the seed. When God's time has come, then God will bring in the sheaves.
 
Thoughts on The Parable of The Mustard Seed...

The mustard seed's characteristic feature is its smallness, rendering it almost insignificant in comparison with others as it is sown.

The results, however, are marvelous. It can grow to be treelike, extending itself in every direction, so that the birds will welcome its shade and be glad to roost on it.

Thus the gospel seems insignificant before people. But God's word alone can take hold of a life and renew it entirely.

And the same effect may be seen in Church history. A few missionaries has grown to a large body. The number of Christians today is huge.

That's comfort to all believers. Their labor can't be in vain, since Christ leads them.
 
Ths sower of the muse tardy seed is an unseen man on the poop deck ... due to bias by the Master on whole really knows where they are going ...

Mortals just cannot digest biases ... only the greatest of sol ... stuff pickled by religions bearing on preservation!

Below deck sal pork and hard bred folk ... as Rev John about Purity! Tis stuff of the hard tack ... tern arounds? Daffydus word ...
 
"The farmer plants God’s message in people [L The sower sows the word]." - Mark 4:14 (EXB).

I believe that message is that newness of life is possible through Jesus Christ.
This interpretation seems to reflect present day Christology more than the intent of the gospel writer.

I am not sure Jesus would have said such a thing about Himself but it is possible He is referring to His own teachings. '

In John's gospel Jesus becomes the Word that was present at the beginning of time. I think it is a mistake to read this back into Mark. . . I am not necessarily saying you are doing this, but you might be.

When I was growing up in the church, it was common to say after reading the bible, "The Word of the Lord, Thanks be to God." In my Sunday School days I thought the "word" in the parable of the sower meant the actual Bible. Little did I know the Bible had not yet been created when Mark's gospel was written. :(
 
This interpretation seems to reflect present day Christology more than the intent of the gospel writer.

Thing is, I believe that what the gospel writer wrote was divinely inspired. That means I hold that what was being written was meant for future readers as well as the writer's contemporaries.

paradox3 said:
I am not sure Jesus would have said such a thing about Himself but it is possible He is referring to His own teachings.

I'm sure that Jesus knew who he was - the Son of God and the Savior.

Another possibility for what the word was - the Kingdom of God is at hand. Really though, it's the same message since the way into God's Kingdom is through Christ.
 
[QUOTE="paradox3, post: 296399, In my Sunday School days I thought the "word" in the parable of the sower meant the actual Bible. Little did I know the Bible had not yet been created when Mark's gospel was written. :([/QUOTE]

The Old Testament existed......does it contain a different gospel of the Kingdom than the new testament IYO?
 
The Old Testament existed

The books existed. The compilation we know as the Old Testament did not. Sounds pedantic, but it is important. The Jewish scriptures are only the "Old Testament" to Christians. To Jews, they are something else again.
 
Jesus often mentioned the Law and the Prophets. We know those books existed and He was aware of them.

Did the Writings of the OT exist in Jesus' day? I don't even know. . . I am woefully lacking in biblical literacy when it comes to the Old Testament.

It was interesting in the Matthew thread to see the gospel writer using the prophecies of the Hebrew scriptures. Mark has done so a few times but much less frequently than Matthew.
 
The books existed. The compilation we know as the Old Testament did not. Sounds pedantic, but it is important. The Jewish scriptures are only the "Old Testament" to Christians. To Jews, they are something else again.
True....technically I suppose we divide the books of the New testament into groupings too.
Do you think Jesus message of Gods kingdom was the same in what Christians call the old testament as in the NT?
Just wondering because Jesus quotes from the OT ....and it might help us relate to the parables also.
 
Jesus used the Law and the Prophets as the psalms. The Psalms are part of the Writings. So clearly He knew some of the Writings, at least.

Law = first 5 books of the (present day) OT. Also known as the Torah.

Prophets is less clear to me. Ditto for the Writings.
 
Jesus often mentioned the Law and the Prophets. We know those books existed and He was aware of them.

Did the Writings of the OT exist in Jesus' day? I don't even know. . . I am woefully lacking in biblical literacy when it comes to the Old Testament.

It was interesting in the Matthew thread to see the gospel writer using the prophecies of the Hebrew scriptures. Mark has done so a few times but much less frequently than Matthew.
Jesus quoted the Hebrew scriptures often.
 
The books existed. The compilation we know as the Old Testament did not. Sounds pedantic, but it is important. The Jewish scriptures are only the "Old Testament" to Christians. To Jews, they are something else again.

Actually, Mendalla, the Septuagint, the Greek translation of the "Old Testament" was assembled/translated about 200 BCE. "All the books of western biblical canons of the Old Testament are found in the Septuagint" (wiki).
 
Jesus used the Law and the Prophets as the psalms. The Psalms are part of the Writings. So clearly He knew some of the Writings, at least.

Law = first 5 books of the (present day) OT. Also known as the Torah.

Prophets is less clear to me. Ditto for the Writings.

He seemed to know the Prophets as well as he did the Law and his preaching and teaching was very much in that tradition. That's why many who reject the idea of him being the Son of God (unitarians and Christian humanists mainly) treat him as a prophet instead.

Do you think Jesus message of Gods kingdom was the same in what Christians call the old testament as in the NT?

He was clearly building on the Law and the teachings of the prophets. There's a definitely a sense of taking them and trying to carve back to the heart of those writings and move away from the interpretations being promulgated and enforced by the leaders of the day. The key difference, I think, is that Jesus wasn't just preaching and teaching those older books, but seems to put forward the idea that he was in some way fulfilling them. Whether that makes him a human Messiah anointed by God or a literal Son of God is a debate as old as the Christian faith.
 
Actually, Mendalla, the Septuagint, the Greek translation of the "Old Testament" was assembled/translated about 200 BCE. "All the books of western biblical canons of the Old Testament are found in the Septuagint" (wiki).

Fair enough, but was that the scripture Jesus knew and read from? Whether he knew Greek or not is a subject for debate. Likely not. At any rate, my comments above stand whether the Jewish scripture had achieved their modern form or not.
 
True....technically I suppose we divide the books of the New testament into groupings too.
Do you think Jesus message of Gods kingdom was the same in what Christians call the old testament as in the NT?
Just wondering because Jesus quotes from the OT ....and it might help us relate to the parables also.
Yes, we have groupings in the NT, too.

I am not completely sure I understand the meaning of God's kingdom in the NT. For many years I believed the kingdom of heaven referred to the afterlife. More recently I started to think it was a Utopian view of the possibilities God sees for this earth.

But our recent study of Matthew has me thinking perhaps Jesus meant a new earth & heaven to come after the final judgement.

So in answering the question of consistency between OT and NT, I have to say yes & no.
I believe that Jesus' views would have been consistent with his faith system. Yet he also offers us something new. . . renewal of the old at the very least. It's confusing.
 
Yes, we have groupings in the NT, too.

I am not completely sure I understand the meaning of God's kingdom in the NT. For many years I believed the kingdom of heaven referred to the afterlife. More recently I started to think it was a Utopian view of the possibilities God sees for this earth.

But our recent study of Matthew has me thinking perhaps Jesus meant a new earth & heaven to come after the final judgement.

So in answering the question of consistency between OT and NT, I have to say yes & no.
I believe that Jesus' views would have been consistent with his faith system. Yet he also offers us something new. . . renewal of the old at the very least. It's confusing.

Humanity was never meant to live eternity in Heaven. Our final resting place - for those of us God has selected - is the new Earth. Said Earth is the same as the Earth we now occupy - only it will exist in a fully-redeemed state.
 
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