The Gospel of Mark

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paradox3 said:
This seems like a reasonable reading of the text.

Why did Jesus say, "For everyone will be salted with fire?" Is this an end times prophecy? Is He talking about purgatory? He makes this statement right after talking about hell where the fire is never quenched.

If we are to have salt in ourselves, what does this mean? It could mean preserving peace; it could mean flavoring (blessing?) the world; it could mean purification. Whatever Jesus meant, I think it is important to keep in mind salt was very valuable in biblical times.
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Ion eye Zed ... hypothesized as allegory as unseen flighty things in the dark of night? Nut abode in archaic Egypt ...

Some opportunistically claim life is heaven ... for a few folk ... the others are disposable ... eliminated from sol ... thus the dark abstract!

Some do not believe in portions of psyche as they can't accept the hole thing ...

Deficiency on the desirous ide? That stir in peace ... that often arrives at Four in the Morning ... that darkest hour ... af'able?
 
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Summary Mark 10: 1-16

Jesus enters the region of Judea and begins teaching, with crowds gathered around Him. To test Him, the Pharisees ask if is lawful for a man to divorce his wife. Moses has allowed a man to divorce his wife by writing a certificate of dismissal.

Jesus replies that Moses wrote this commandment because of the hardness of their hearts.

But God's ideas are different. Here are the very well-known words:

"But from the beginning of creation, God made them male and female. For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh. So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.” (10: 6-9 NRSV)

Back in the house, the disciples ask for further explanation and Jesus declares that it is adultery for a man or woman to divorce and remarry.

Next, the disciples speak sternly to people bringing little children to Jesus for blessing. Jesus rebukes them, saying, "Whoever does not receive the kingdom of God as a little child will never enter it." (10: 15 NRSV) He took the children in his arms, laid his hands on them and blessed them.
 
Reflection: Mark 10: 1-16

Now we have Jesus' pronouncement about marriage. It seems clear enough that He is opposed to divorce & imposes a higher standard than the Law of Moses. Moses has allowed divorce as somewhat of a compromise but only when initiated by the man.

Children are valued and blessed by Jesus.

The troubling thing about this passage is that it can be used to force women to stay in abusive relationships. But I wonder if it was Jesus' intent to protect women. According to the Law, a man could write a certificate of dismissal and divorce his wife, seemingly on whim.

Thoughts about how Jesus saw marriage and children?
 
paradox3 said:
Reflection: Mark 10: 1-16

Now we have Jesus' pronouncement about marriage. It seems clear enough that He is opposed to divorce & imposes a higher standard than the Law of Moses. Moses has allowed divorce as somewhat of a compromise but only when initiated by the man.

Children are valued and blessed by Jesus.

The troubling thing about this passage is that it can be used to force women to stay in abusive relationships. But I wonder if it was Jesus' intent to protect women. According to the Law, a man could write a certificate of dismissal and divorce his wife, seemingly on whim.

Thoughts about how Jesus saw marriage and children?
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Wondering why you only mention forcing women to stay in a abusive relationships as being problematic. What about men who are in abusive relationships?
 
Jae said:
Wondering why you only mention forcing women to stay in a abusive relationships as being problematic. What about men who are in abusive relationships?
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Agreed that all abusive relationships are problematic.

Any comments about the text?
 
paradox3 said:
Agreed that all abusive relationships are problematic.

Any comments about the text?
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Thoughts on Mark 10:10-12...

The missionaries were inspired by rabbis' teaching, which they'd heard from their youth.

Jesus' statements differed so plainly from the customs with which they were familiar that they asked him about it.

Jesus summarizes: If any man divorces his wife, looses her from the marriage-bond, and marries another, he commits adultery against her.

That the missionaries were as hardened as the rest of the people doesn't change God's decree.

The same rule holds true, of course, in a woman's case.
 
paradox3 said:
This seems like a reasonable reading of the text.

Why did Jesus say, "For everyone will be salted with fire?" Is this an end times prophecy? Is He talking about purgatory? He makes this statement right after talking about hell where the fire is never quenched.

If we are to have salt in ourselves, what does this mean? It could mean preserving peace; it could mean flavoring (blessing?) the world; it could mean purification. Whatever Jesus meant, I think it is important to keep in mind salt was very valuable in biblical times.
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Maybe it means, “if salt were to lose its ‘value’” - or losing purpose in the broader sense.
 
Maybe being sprinkled with fire means given a purpose and motivation...the ancient equivalent of “lighting a fire under them”... or lighting the fire within.

For some reason I just thought of William and Kate’s wedding, and how the Archbishop said “you will light the world on fire”. He did not mean that they will literally light the world on fire. He meant the hope that they will be a good inspiration that will catch on and spread. (not commentary on whether they are or not, but about the intent of using fire as metaphor).
 
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Kimmio said:
Maybe being sprinkled with fire means given a purpose and motivation...the ancient equivalent of “lighting a fire under them”... or lighting the fire within.
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Also possible but I think it more likely Jesus was referring to some sort of refinement process . . . maybe purgatory.
 
Jae said:
Thoughts on Mark 10:10-12...

The missionaries were inspired by rabbis' teaching, which they'd heard from their youth.

Jesus' statements differed so plainly from the customs with which they were familiar that they asked him about it.

Jesus summarizes: If any man divorces his wife, looses her from the marriage-bond, and marries another, he commits adultery against her.

That the missionaries were as hardened as the rest of the people doesn't change God's decree.

The same rule holds true, of course, in a woman's case.
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How do you see these teachings applying to present day?
 
Kimmio said:
Maybe it means, “if salt were to lose its ‘value’” - or losing purpose in the broader sense.
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I really like this. Salt losing its saltiness could definitely mean losing its value. I heard a sermon many years ago which suggested losing its value could mean salt losing its sting. Also an interesting interpretation of the text.
 
paradox3 said:
How do you see these teachings applying to present day?
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Same as they applied in the past.

There are only two biblical grounds for divorce - mentioned elsewhere in the Bible. The first is adultery, the second being abandonment of a Christian by their non-Christian spouse.
 
paradox3 ---your quote -----Now we have Jesus' pronouncement about marriage. It seems clear enough that He is opposed to divorce & imposes a higher standard than the Law of Moses. Moses has allowed divorce as somewhat of a compromise but only when initiated by the man.

unsafe says -----Jesus is Not opposed to divorce -----as in Matthew 5:31 He says this ---so He gives boundaries here -----

Posting from Matthew here ----

Matthew 5:31-35 (ESV)
Divorce
31 A)'>“It was also said, B)'>‘Whoever divorces his wife, let him give her a certificate of divorce.’ 32 C)'>But I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except on the ground of sexual immorality, makes her commit adultery, and D)'>whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.

unsafe says -----What is Happening in Mark 10 here about Divorce is the Pharisees are questioning Jesus about Divorce Hoping that He forgets what He said about Divorce so they can have something on Him ------verse 2 tells us this ----2 Some Pharisees came and tested him by asking, “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife?”

unsafe says ----
But Jesus refuses to get trapped and brings the conversation to the joining of a husband and wife in marriage become one flesh ---they are not 2 separate people any longer ----so He turns the conversation to the meaning of what marriage is ----


This is From Matthew ---Message Bible here ---verses 31-37

Matthew 5:31-37 (MSG)
31-32 “Remember the Scripture that says, ‘Whoever divorces his wife, let him do it legally, giving her divorce papers and her legal rights’? Too many of you are using that as a cover for selfishness and whim, pretending to be righteous just because you are ‘legal.’ Please, no more pretending. If you divorce your wife, you’re responsible for making her an adulteress (unless she has already made herself that by sexual promiscuity). And if you marry such a divorced adulteress, you’re automatically an adulterer yourself. You can’t use legal cover to mask a moral failure.

Empty Promises
33-37 “And don’t say anything you don’t mean. This counsel is embedded deep in our traditions. You only make things worse when you lay down a smoke screen of pious talk, saying, ‘I’ll pray for you,’ and never doing it, or saying, ‘God be with you,’ and not meaning it. You don’t make your words true by embellishing them with religious lace. In making your speech sound more religious, it becomes less true. Just say ‘yes’ and ‘no.’ When you manipulate words to get your own way, you go wrong.



unsafe says ----so for people to say that Jesus is opposed to divorce is wrong and that is why it is important to bring other passages into play when doing a Bible Study --------This is why putting our own spin on Scripture is very dangerous ---it sends the wrong Message to others about God and His Word -----
 
Jae said:
Same as they applied in the past.

There are only two biblical grounds for divorce - mentioned elsewhere in the Bible. The first is adultery, the second being abandonment of a Christian by their non-Christian spouse.
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Is Jesus prohibiting divorce in this passage? I don't think it is absolutely forbidden but He does say the divorced commit adultery if they remarry.
 
And I suppose it's reflective of 1st century mores that men don't seem to be able to commit adultery.
 
BetteTheRed said:
And I suppose it's reflective of 1st century mores that men don't seem to be able to commit adultery.
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Mark 10:10-11 (EXB)...

"Later, in the house, his followers [disciples] asked Jesus again about ·the question of divorce [L this matter]. He answered, “Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman ·is guilty of [commits] adultery against her."
 
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