Mendalla
Happy headbanging ape!!
- Pronouns
- He/Him/His
Well, that a statement that might provoke a debate in this day and age, eh.
www.biblegateway.com
But what does it really mean in historical context. A recent podcast on Gone Medieval discussing atheism in the medieval world made the point that atheism in ancient and medieval times meant something different than in the modern era (mostly, there were a few school of philosophy like Epicureanism that came close). The Greek original "átheos" is apparently best translated as "godless", which in English does not necessarily mean one does not believe in a deity(ies) but that one behaves in an immoral way, acts "without God" in the sense of not following divine law or morality. It's a charge we see being made against Christians by pagans (and vice versa) or between Catholics and Protestants during the post-Reformation conflicts. So Psalm 53 may not be talking about philosophical atheism (since the writer and their society may not even have conceived of the idea) as we know it today, but about turning away from God's guidance on morality and behaviour.
So what do you take away from 53? Is it condemning non-belief? Or believers who do not actually follow God's teachings and laws (see 119)? Is it applicable to 21st century atheism, which did not exist in the time and society where it was written?
And the mood here. Is it anger at the fools? Frustration? Desire to teach and enlighten them?
And, of course, what else do you take away from this psalm? All thoughts welcome, of course. I'm just picking at one or two threads here.

Bible Gateway passage: Psalm 53 - New Revised Standard Version Updated Edition
Psalm 53 Denunciation of Godlessness - To the leader: according to Mahalath. A Maskil of David. Fools say in their hearts, “There is no God.” They are corrupt; they commit abominable acts; there is no one who does good. God looks down from heaven on humankind to see if there are any who are...
But what does it really mean in historical context. A recent podcast on Gone Medieval discussing atheism in the medieval world made the point that atheism in ancient and medieval times meant something different than in the modern era (mostly, there were a few school of philosophy like Epicureanism that came close). The Greek original "átheos" is apparently best translated as "godless", which in English does not necessarily mean one does not believe in a deity(ies) but that one behaves in an immoral way, acts "without God" in the sense of not following divine law or morality. It's a charge we see being made against Christians by pagans (and vice versa) or between Catholics and Protestants during the post-Reformation conflicts. So Psalm 53 may not be talking about philosophical atheism (since the writer and their society may not even have conceived of the idea) as we know it today, but about turning away from God's guidance on morality and behaviour.
So what do you take away from 53? Is it condemning non-belief? Or believers who do not actually follow God's teachings and laws (see 119)? Is it applicable to 21st century atheism, which did not exist in the time and society where it was written?
And the mood here. Is it anger at the fools? Frustration? Desire to teach and enlighten them?
And, of course, what else do you take away from this psalm? All thoughts welcome, of course. I'm just picking at one or two threads here.